Sunday, July 14, 2013

How does an Orthodox Christian interpret these quotes about the Bishop of Rome?

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How does an Orthodox Christian interpret these quotes about the Bishop of Rome?


"We exhort you, honorable brother, to submit yourself in all things to what has been written by the blessed Bishop of Rome, because St. Peter, who lives and presides in his see, gives the true faith to those who seek it. For our part, for the sake of peace and the good of the faith, we cannot judge questions of doctrine without the consent of the Bishop of Rome." Bishop St. Peter Chrysologus of Ravenna (Doctor of Homilies; July 30) says in 449 [Letter 25:2 to the Priest Eutyches in PL 54:742D-743A]

Is he speaking solely to a priest under the jurisdiction of Rome that is obliged to obey his bishop?

"Therefore if a man does not want to be, or to be called, a heretic, let him not strive to please this or that man ... but let him hasten before all things to be in communion with the Roman See. If he be in communion with it, he should be acknowledged by all and everywhere as faithful and orthodox. He speaks in vain who tries to persuade me of the orthodoxy of those who, like himself, refuse obedience to his Holiness the Pope of the most holy Church of Rome: that is to the Apostolic See." St. Maximus the Confessor of Constantinople (August 13) says [Excerpt from Letter to Peter in PG 91:144BC]:

This one seems tough.

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well, in both, neither say that Rome is the infallible head of the Church, and they were written before the schism. Rome, being the cultural head and a way from many of the early heresies, had a lot of appeals to Rome because Rome, in a lot of cases was correct in her theology, and we submit to those right believing bishops. and since Rome was the first among equals, he would have been the one to appeal especially if those were written to folks under Roman jurisdiction.

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Originally Posted by ArmyMatt View Post

well, in both, neither say that Rome is the infallible head of the Church, and they were written before the schism. Rome, being the cultural head and a way from many of the early heresies, had a lot of appeals to Rome because Rome, in a lot of cases was correct in her theology, and we submit to those right believing bishops. and since Rome was the first among equals, he would have been the one to appeal especially if those were written to folks under Roman jurisdiction.

It seems to me like St. Maximus is speaking to a lot more than just a primacy of honor, and dismissing it as such seems almost akin to the atheist who refuses to acknowledge the existence of God unless he is offered irrefutable proof. Is that what it would take for an Orthodox Christian to admit Rome is right (if they are right, of course) about papal supremacy? Irrefutable proof?

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no, because the Church has always been conciliar (look at Acts), so you would have to see this all over the place. you would have to see this at the Councils (you don't). and, even then, you have to know who these guys are talking to and why. it's just as bad to sola scriptura a Church Father.

I would also point out that the Oriental Orthodox and the Syriac Church of the East both left the Church before the schism. so one would think that if the Roman claim about the Pope to be accurate, that they would have a similar organization, and they don't. their bishops, at least the OO, are organized like the EO.

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"Everyone capable of thanksgiving is capable of joy and eternal salvation." -Fr. Alexander Schmemann

"The time of the end, though it seems to be near, we do not know. Let us then struggle while it is still day, with the time and the weapons which our All-merciful God has given us!" -Fr. Seraphim Rose






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Source: http://www.christianforums.com/t7759171/

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